Parts 1–3 have exact answers. Parts 4 and 5 do not β€” compare whether yours answers the same questions this one does.

1 Β· Before and after

today:        890 / 555 = 160.4%      🟒
after 300m:   590 / 555 = 106.3%      🟒 β€” still green, but the headroom is nearly gone

A dividend reduces risk-bearing capital and leaves target capital untouched: the book has not changed, only the capital behind it.

2 Β· The largest green dividend

Green requires the ratio to exceed 100%, so solve:

(890 βˆ’ D) / 555 > 1        ⟺        D < 890 βˆ’ 555 = 335

The largest dividend to the nearest million that stays green is CHF 334m β€” at exactly 335 the ratio is 100.0%, which Art. 51 Β§2(a) puts in yellow, not green (green is above the threshold).

3 Β· Does it need approval?

Both do. Art. 52 Β§1 requires prior FINMA approval for solvency-relevant actions if the company would not be in the green band immediately after them β€” and a dividend is named explicitly, alongside capital repayments, commuting outward reinsurance and group-internal transactions.

That is the letter of it. In practice a company proposing to spend 99% of its headroom is having a conversation with its supervisor whether or not a form requires it β€” and if any input turns out to have been optimistic, the action that looked green was not.

4 Β· Current position or projected position?

For projecting:

Against relying on a projection:

The practical resolution is the one the ordinance itself takes: file on the reference date, and Art. 50 Β§3 requires immediate notification if the risk situation changes enough to reduce the ratio materially β€” including falling below an intervention threshold β€” with an approximate recomputation attached. The projection informs the decision; it does not replace the test.

5 Β· Judgement β€” one defensible answer

I would advise against 300m, and propose something closer to 150–200m, for three reasons.

  1. The headroom is the shock absorber, and this book has a long tail. Motor liability develops over decades and is the classic carrier of the two risks that move an SST ratio without anyone underwriting anything: claims inflation and a change in the discount rate. A company at 106% has almost no room for either.
  2. The ratio is a point estimate of a modelled quantity. Target capital is itself the output of a model with selected parameters β€” Lesson 4 will show that the single most influential number in the reserve component is a coefficient of variation the actuary chose. Treating 106% as if it were measured to three digits is a category error.
  3. The asymmetry of being wrong. Paying 150m and being able to pay more later costs the shareholder a delay. Paying 300m and finding the ratio at 90% costs a measures plan, a supervisory conversation, and the loss of the freedom to act without approval.

What I would want to see first:


← All solutions Β· Exercise

Reconnecting…
The connection to the server was interrupted. Trying to restore it…
Trying again…
The connection could not be restored. Reloading the page…
The server was updated. Reloading the page to pick up the latest version.